That's interesting. I would think the interest would be based on the Adj Cap Cost as that factor already includes the Residual, doesn't it? In other words, it appears that I'm accounting for the Residual twice when multiplying it by the money factor.
I think I'm negotiating at a great time with these higher residuals. I've been reading a lot on MSD vs Down Payments (Cap Cost Reduction) as well and it looks like I need to remove the down payment in favor of as many MSDs as I can swing.
I appreciate the clarification and help dwlink!